CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 265)

(265) Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?

A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.

B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.

C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.

D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

"A system-specific policy presents the management's decisions that are closer to the actual computers, networks, applications, and data. This type of policy can provide an approved software list, which contains a list of applications that can be installed on individual workstations. This policy can describe how databases are to be protected, how computers are to be locked down, and how firewall, intrusion diction systems, and scanners are to be employed." Pg 93 Shon Harris CISSP All-In-One Certification Exam Guide

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 264)

(264) In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?

A. Security policy

B. Enforcement guidelines

C. Acceptable use policy

D. Program manual

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:

An acceptable use policy is a document that the employee signs in which the expectations, roles and responsibilities are outlined.

Issue -specific policies address specific security issues that management feels need more detailed explanation and attention to make sure a comprehensive structure is built and all employees understand how they are to comply to these security issues. - Shon Harris All- in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 62

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 263)

(263) Why must senior management endorse a security policy?

A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.

B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.

C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.

D. So that they can be held legally accountable.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

This really does not a reference as it should be known. Upper management is legally accountable (up to 290 million fine). External organizations answer is not really to pertinent (however it stated that other organizations will respect a BCP and disaster recover plan). Employees need to be bound to the policy regardless of who signs it but it gives validity. Ownership is the correct answer in this statement. However, here is a reference. "Fundamentally important to any security program's success us the senior management's high-level statement of commitment to the information security policy process and a senior management's understanding of how important security controls and protections are to the enterprise's continuity. Senior management must be aware of the importance of security implementation to preserve the organization's viability (and for their own 'due care' protection) and must publicly support that process throughout the enterprise." -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 13

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 262)

(262) What is the function of a corporate information security policy?

A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.

B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.

C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to secure them.

D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet business objectives.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:

Information security policies are high-level plans that describe the goals of the procedures or controls.

Policies describe security in general, not specifics. They provide the blueprint fro an overall security program just as a specification defines your next product.

- Roberta Bragg CISSP Certification Training Guide (que) pg 587

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 261)

(261) Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the development of an information security policy?

A. Information Systems

B. Human Resources

C. Business operations

D. Security administration

Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:

None

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 260)

(260) Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security program?

A. Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement

B. Development and implementation of an information security standards manual

C. Development of a security awareness-training program

D. Purchase of security access control software

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

None

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 259)

(259) Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of

A. Encryption Security

B. Procedural Security.

C. Logical Security

D. On-line Security

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

Procedures are looked at as the lowest level in the policy chain because they are closest to the computers and provide detailed steps for configuration and installation issues. They provide the steps to actually implement the statements in the policies, standards, and guidelines...Security procedures, standards, measures, practices, and policies cover a number of different subject areas. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 44-45

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 258)

(258) Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?

A. Identifies major functional areas of information.

B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.

C. Requires the identification of information owners.

D. Lists applications that support the business function.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

Information security policies area high-level plans that describe the goals of the procedures. Policies are not guidelines or standards, nor are they procedures or controls. Policies describe security in general terms, not specifics. They provide the blueprints for an overall security program just as a specification defines your next product - Roberta Bragg CISSP Certification Training Guide (que) pg 206

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 257)

(257) A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Background

B. Scope statement

C. Audit requirements

D. Enforcement

Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:

None

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 256)

(256) All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the

A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.

B. statement of roles and responsibilities

C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.

D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:

Policies are considered the first and highest level of documentation, from which the lower level elements of standards, procedures, and guidelines flow. This order, however, does not mean that policies are more important than the lower elements. These higher- level policies, which are the more general policies and statements, should be created first in the process for strategic reasons, and then the more tactical elements can follow.

-Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 13

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

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CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 255)

(255) The U.S. Uniform Computer Information Transactions Act (UCITA) is a:

A. Model act that is intended to apply uniform legislation to electronic 
credit transactions

B. Model act that is intended to apply uniform legislation to software 
licensing

C. Model act that addresses electronic transactions conducted by financial 
institutions

D. Model act that addresses digital signatures

Explanation:

The National Commissioners on Uniform State Laws (NCUSL) voted to approve the Uniform Computers Information Transactions Act (UCITA) on July 29, 1999. This legislation, which will have to be enacted state-by-state, will greatly affect libraries access to and use of software packages. It also will keep in place the current licensing practices of software vendors. At the present time, shrink-wrap or click-wrap licenses limit rights that are normally granted under copyright law. Under Section 109 of the U.S. 1976 Copyright Act, the first sale provision permits the owner of a particular copy without the authority of the copyright owner, to sell or otherwise dispose of the possession of that copy. However, the software manufacturers use the term license in their transactions. As opposed to the word sale, the term license denotes that the software manufacturers are permitting users to use a copy of their softwarE . Thus, the software vendor still owns the softwarE . Until each state enacts the legislation, it is not clear if shrink-wrap licenses that restrict users rights under
copyright law are legally enforceablE . For clarification, shrink-wrap licenses physically accompany a disk while click-on and active clickwrap licenses are usually transmitted electronically. Sometimes, the term shrink-wrap is interpreted to mean both physical and electronic licenses to use softwarE . The focus of the UCITA legislation is not on the physical media, but on the information contained on the media.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 254)

(254) Which choice below BEST describes the process of data purging?

A. Complete physical destruction of the media

B. Reusing data storage media after its initial use

C. Overwriting of data media intended to be reused in the same organization or area

D. Degaussing or thoroughly overwriting media intended to be removed 
the control of the organization or area

Explanation:
Answer “Overwriting of data media intended to be reused in the same organization or area” refers to data clearing.
Answer “Complete physical destruction of the media” describes data destruction.
Answer “Reusing data storage media after its initial use” describes object reuse.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 253)

(253) The theft of a laptop poses a threat to which tenet of the C.I.A. triad?

A. All of the above

B. Availability

C. Integrity

D. Confidentiality

Explanation:

The correct answer is confidentiality, because the data can now
be read by someone outside of a monitored environment; availability,
because the user has lost the computing ability provided by the unit;
and integrity, because the data residing on and any telecommunications
from the portable are now suspect.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 252)

(252) seizure as established in the Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
These restrictions are still, essentially, more severe than those on private
citizens, who are not agents of a government entity. Thus, internal
investigators in an organization or private investigators are not subject to
the same restrictions as government officials. Private individuals are not
normally held to the same standards regarding search and seizure since
they are not conducting an unconstitutional government search.
However, there are certain exceptions where the Fourth Amendment

applies to private citizens if they act as agents of the government/police.
Which of the following is NOT one of these exceptions?

A. The private individual conducts a warrantless search of company
property for the company.
B. The private individual conducts a search that would require a search
warrant if conducted by a government entity.
C. The government is aware of the intent to search or is aware of a
search conducted by the private individual and does not object to
these actions.
D. The private individual performs the search to aid the government.

Explanation:
Since the private individual, say an employee of the company, conducts a search for evidence on property that is owned by the company and is not acting as an agent of the government, a warrantless search is permitted. The Fourth Amendment does not apply. For review, the Fourth Amendment guarantees: The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers,
and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized. The exigent circumstances doctrine provides an exception to these guarantees if destruction of evidence is imminent. Then, a warrantless search and seizure of evidence can be conducted if there is probable cause to suspect criminal activity. The other answers describe exceptions where the private individual is subject to the
Fourth Amendment guarantees.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 251)

(251) Which of the following is NOT a form of computer/network surveillance?

A. Use of CCTV cameras

B. Use of network sniffers

C. Keyboard monitoring

D. Review of audit logs

Explanation:

CCTV cameras fall under the category of physical surveillance.
Answers a and b are forms of active surveillance. These types of surveillance require an organizational policy informing the employees that the surveillance is being conducted. Additionally, warning banners describing the surveillance at log-on to a computer or network should be prominently displayed. These banners usually state that by logging on, the user acknowledges the warning and agrees to the monitoring. Answer “Review of audit logs” is a passive form of computer/network surveillance.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 250)

(250) The Internet Activities Board (IAB) considers which of the following
behaviors relative to the Internet as unethical?

A. Negligence in the conduct of Internet experiments

B. Recordkeeping in which an individual cannot find out what information concerning that individual is in the record

C. Improper dissemination and use of identifiable personal data

D. Recordkeeping whose very existence is secret

Explanation:

The IAB document, Ethics and the Internet (RFC 1087) listed behaviors as unethical that:
Seek to gain unauthorized access to the resources of the Internet
Destroy the integrity of computer-based information
Disrupt the intended use of the Internet
Waste resources such as people, capacity and computers through such actions
Compromise the privacy of users

Involve negligence in the conduct of Internetwide experiments
The other answers are taken from the Code of Fair Information Practices of the U.S. Department of Health, Education of Welfare.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 249)

(249) Which of the following alternatives should NOT be used by law enforcement to gain access to a password?

A. Contacting the developer of the software for information to gain access to the computer or network through a back door

B. Compelling the suspect to provide the password

C. Data manipulation and trial procedures applied to the original version of the system hard disk

D. Using password cracker software

Explanation:

The original disk of a computer involved in a criminal investigation should not be used for any experimental purposes since data may be modified or destroyed. Any operations should be conducted on a copy of the system disk. However, the other answers are the preferred methods of gaining access to a password-protected system.
Interestingly, in answer b, there is legal precedent to order a suspect to provide the password of a computer that is in the custody of law enforcement.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 248)

(248) Which is NOT a recommended way to dispose of unwanted used data media?

A. Copying new data over existing data on diskettes

B. Formatting diskettes seven or more times

C. Shredding paper reports by cleared personnel

D. Destroying CD-ROMs

Explanation:
The correct answer is copying new data over existing data on diskettes. While this method might overwrite the older files, if the new data file is smaller than the older data file, recoverable data might exist past the file end marker of the new file.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 247)

(247) The recommended optimal relative humidity range for computer operations is:

A. 40% to 60%

B. 10% to 30%

C. 30% to 40%

D. 60% to 80%

Explanation:

The correct answer is C. 40% to 60% relative humidity is recommended for safe computer operations. Too low humidity can create static discharge problems, and too high humidity can create condensation and electrical contact problems.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 246)

(246) Which is NOT a type of a fire detector?

A. Smoke-actuated

B. Flame-actuated

C. Gas-discharge

D. Heat-sensing

Explanation:
The correct answer is Gas-discharge. Gas-discharge is a type of fire extinguishing system, not a fire detection system.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 245)

(245) Which type of fire extinguishing method contains standing water in the pipe, and therefore generally does not enable a manual shutdown of systems before discharge?

A. Dry Pipe

B. Deluge

C. Wet pipe

D. Preaction

Explanation:
The other three are variations on a dry pipe discharge method with the water not standing in the pipe until a fire is detected.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 244)

(244) Which type of control below is NOT an example of a physical security
access control?

A. Guard dog

B. Audit trail

C. Retinal scanner

D. Five-key programmable lock

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 243)

(243) A brownout can be defined as a:

A. Prolonged low voltage.

B. Prolonged power loss.

C. Momentary high voltage.

D. Momentary low voltage.

Explanation:

The correct answer is “Prolonged low voltage”.
Answer “prolonged power loss” is a blackout.
Answer “momentary low voltage” is a sag.
Answer “momentary high voltage” is a spike.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 242)

(242) Why should extensive exterior perimeter lighting of entrances or parking areas be installed?

A. To enable programmable locks to be used

B. To create two-factor authentication

C. To discourage prowlers or casual intruders

D. To prevent dataremanence

Explanation:

The other answers have nothing to do with lighting.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 241)

(241) Which choice below is the BEST description of a Central Station Alarm System?

A. Also rings an alarm in the local fire or police station

B. Rings an alarm in the office of the customer

C. Rings an alarm in a central monitoring office of a third-party monitoring firm

D. Rings an audible alarm on the local premises that it protects

Explanation:

Answer “Rings an audible alarm on the local premises that it protects” describes a Local Alarm System.
Answer “Rings an alarm in the office of the customer” describes a Proprietary System.
Answer “Also rings an alarm in the local fire or police station” describes an Auxiliary Station System.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 240)

(240) Which choice below is NOT a type of motion detector?

A. Audio detection

B. Wave pattern detection

C. Smoke detection

D. Capacitance detection

Explanation:

The other three are examples of intrusion detectors designed to sense unusual movement within a defined interior security area.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 239)

(239) What is the recommended height of perimeter fencing to keep out casual trespassers?

A. 8 to 12 high

B. 6 to 7 high

C. 3 to 4 high

D. 1 to 2 high

Explanation:

3 to 4 high fencing is considered minimal protection, only for restricting casual trespassers. Answers “6 to 7 high” and “8 to 12 high” are better protection against intentional intruders.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 238)

(238) Which is a benefit of a guard over an automated control?

A. Guards are cheaper.

B. Guards do not need pre-employment screening.

C. Guards do not need training.

D. Guards can use discriminating judgment.

Explanation:
Guards can use discriminating judgment.
Guards are typically more expensive than automated controls, need training as to the protection requirements of the specific site, and need to be screened and bonded.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari

CISSP Exam Preparation (Question 237)

(237) The European Union Electronic Signature Directive of January, 2000, defines an advanced electronic signature. This signature must meet all of the following requirements except that:

A. It must be created using means that are generally accessible and available.

B. It must be uniquely linked to the signatory.

C. It must be linked to the data to which it relates in such a manner that any subsequent change of the data is detectable.

D. It must be capable of identifying the signatory.

Explanation:
The Directive requires that the means be maintained under the sole control of the signatory. This requirement is a particularly difficult one to achieve. One approach is to use different tokens or smart cards for the different transactions involved. The other answers are typical
characteristics of digital signatures that can be implemented with public key cryptography.

- Muhammad Idham Azhari